A thought struck me after rereading janet marie's comments. Is it a lack of dopamine in PD or is it the inability to manufacture and distribute dopamine in the brain? This is a dumb question probably, and another reason to keep my mouth shut most likely. If it is the lack of dopamine, does it help to use antidepressants (as prozac) to help counteract dopamine loss? I ask because this is the medication I take each day for clinical depression. As I read further about pd, I keep seeing references to restless leg syndrome. This is caused by the lack of dopamine also I believe, and I have had this syndrome as long as I can remember..Why then isn't the family of antidepressants that prozac belongs to more effective in helping PD? If it is, I havent read this anywhere.. Could anyone clarify this for me ?