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"Current evidence suggests that PD symptoms appear after there has been an 80 percent loss of the dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra and a similar loss of dopamine synapses with the basal ganglia." Does this mean that we have an "overabundance of cells" to begin with? Is this tantamount to the statement "we only use 10 to 20 percent or our brains"? If the statement is true, then, does this mean that as "cells are lost", some "other cells" pick up the slack? Some other part of the brain is now doing the work of the "percentage lost", until we get to that magic marker of "80percent"? And if this is true, then, why "80 percent"? I could not help using the analogy: "we don't know there is water coming in the house until 80 percent of the roof is gone"; "we don't know that the ship is taking water until it is 80 percent sunk"; "we are not aware of mechanical problems with a car until 3 out of 4 cylinders are not working". Sincerely, Mario ---------------------------------------------------------------------- To sign-off Parkinsn send a message to: mailto:[log in to unmask] In the body of the message put: signoff parkinsn