 |
 |
Ivan or anyone: I don't quite understand what action is taking place. I'm not an attorney but I understand a little about mortgagees and taxes and their delinquencies and consequences thereof. Mortgages get foreclosed. But lenders hold mortgages, not cities, so if the city is involved in the action it seems to me it can't be a foreclosure. Cities are involved in taxes. As best I know, cities create liens when taxes are unpaid and then sell the liens at public auctions to private individuals who then become (in effect) lenders and are entitled to foreclose and take the property if the lien debt is not paid. Neither of these two scenarios occur overnight. How long has this been going on. If the debt is a tax lien, is the city foreclosing. For what years are the taxes delinquent and how much each year. Also, even after a foreclosure or a tax lien sale, the debtor still has a period of time subsequent (usually 30 days) to redeem, meaning he/she can still pay off the debt and not lose the property. think those of us with even some little knowledge could give better advice if the story came through a little clearer with more facts and less emotion (sorry Ivan - but facts help understanding more) Paul H. Lauer